On Fri, Oct 09, 2009 at 02:37:36PM +0000, Henrik Størner wrote:
In <20091009141045.GA8490 at ntm.vs.lam.cz> Milan Kocian <milon at wq.cz> writes:
when we are talking about, I have one question in this area (DNS). I don't understand why http tests resolve hostnames when you explicitly define ip address in test. Is this intention to make dns test together ? (I have small patch to disable it :-).
It's because webservers often use the hostname-part of the URL to determine how to process the request. E.g. if you have 10 sites hosted on the same physical box (= same IP), then you must specify the "hostname" in the URL to hit the right virtual webserver.
Many thanks for answer. Yes, I understand this behaviour.
That's why you can override the DNS lookup:
10.0.0.1 www.foo.com # http://abc.foo.com=192.168.1.2/
But my question is: Why is done dns query in your case ? IMHO when I specify ip address explicitly (via =), I don't need dns query in bbtest-net.
Regards, Henrik
May be my patch helps to understand what I mean : --- xymon-4.2.3/bbnet/bbtest-net.c 2009-02-09 10:28:57.000000000 +0100 +++ xymon-sources-4.2.3/bbnet/bbtest-net.c 2009-09-10 17:05:25.000000000 +0200 @@ -540,7 +540,8 @@ } else { s = httptest; - add_url_to_dns_queue(testspec); + if (!url.desturl->ip) + add_url_to_dns_queue(testspec); } } else if (argnmatch(testspec, "apache") || argnmatch(testspec, "apache=")) { Regard, -- Milan Kocian